About Memory Mapping

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#1 21661490 13 Mar 2012 10:01

Kvks kumar Kvks kumar

Anonymous

Post #1
21661490 13 Mar 2012 10:01

I see that a 64 bit os supports more memory as compared to a 32 bit os. but I use the same peripherals. what is it that limits the maximum memory addressable (physical or virtual) ? Is it the kernel or anything else? Please can anyone answer me my doubt? thanks in advance.
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#2 21661491 13 Mar 2012 11:14

Cody Miller Cody Miller

Anonymous

Post #2
21661491 13 Mar 2012 11:14

A 32 bit system has a total addressable memory space 4GB where a 64 bit system has total addressable memory space of 16EB (exabytes). This "article":http://www.zdnet.com/blog/hardware/clearing-up-the-3264-bit-memory-limit-confusion/3124 may answer some of your questions, and this link provides some specifics related to Microsoft Windows "32bit vs 64bit":http://support.microsoft.com/kb/294418
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#3 21661492 13 Mar 2012 22:47

Maulik Vaghela Maulik Vaghela

Anonymous

Post #3
21661492 13 Mar 2012 22:47

It is in the microprocessor . The maximum memory supported by processor(32-bit or 64-bit) mainly supports on number of address lines . For Example, In Case of 8086 microprocessor , It is 16-bit processor but it has 20-bit physical address (using one technique called base+offset) . so It can support maximum memory is (2^20 = 1 MB) .
So depending upon number of address line the maximum memory depends upon processor not on kernel.
#4 21661493 14 Mar 2012 02:43

Kvks kumar Kvks kumar

Anonymous

Post #4
21661493 14 Mar 2012 02:43

I must have not been clear in my question. when I use the same processor(say 64 bit) and same peripherals what is it that limits the memory size when I go for different os (32 bit and 64bit ). I am not changing anything but just this variation makes me use more amount of space. Is kernel limitng this memory access?
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