_jta_ wrote: The resistance of the I-beam to bending towards the flange (i.e. how the flanges lie horizontally and the crossbar vertically, i.e. bend downwards, if something is loaded on it) can be quite simply calculated: crossbeam height X (flange cross-section area + 1/6 of the cross-bar cross-sectional area) ) X material strength.
Worse with the resistance to bending in the perpendicular side (i.e. as the cross-section is the letter H with a fairly wide bar) - you need to calculate the integral zx ^ 2 * g (x) * dx within the range from -s / 2 to s / 2, where x is the height above the plane of the crossbar (negative means that we are under it), ag (x) is the thickness of the foot at height x, and the result is multiplied by (4 / s) X the material strength (as we integrate one foot and the other is the same). Let us say that the foot has the shape of a symmetrical pentagon, obtained by cutting the "arms" of an isosceles triangle with a small height g1: in the middle it is still g1, the base is s wide, at the ends of the base there are sides with heights g2 perpendicular to it, resulting from trimming then there are sides connecting them to the vertex. Then g (x) = g1-2 * | x | * (g1-g2) / s; you need to integrate x ^ 2 * g1-2 * x ^ 3 * (g1-g2) / s from 0 to s / 2 and multiply the result by 2; integration results in g1 * s ^ 3 / 24- (g1-g2) * s ^ 3/32 = (4 * g1-3 * g1 + 3 * g2) * s ^ 3/96 = (g1 + 3 * g2) * s ^ 3/96; the final strength result is: material strength * (g1 + 3 * g2) * s ^ 2/12.
Consider the case of g2 = 0, s = h / 2. Then the first result (divided by the strength of the material so as not to write it everywhere) will be g1 * s * h / 2 = g1 * s ^ 2 (not counting the strength provided by the crossbar), and the second g1 * s ^ 2/12 - that is 12 times smaller (if you count the bar, it will come out 16). Second case: g2 = g1, s = h; then (without the crossbar strength) the first result will be g1 * s ^ 2, the second will be g1 * s ^ 2/3.
It seems that in the drawing (and in the table of dimensions) h was counted together in the thickness of the feet, and for calculating the strength, h should be taken without this thickness (and this is approximately) - in this way it is taken into account that we lose some strength due to unequal deformation of the feet.
buddy _jta_
please stop misleading people, you're counting like algebra
I am a civil engineer with several years of practice, so I cannot accept these "calculations" with ease
The formula for calculating the deflection for the case of a free-supported beam loaded with a continuous constant load (the simplest case) is the last case in the link I have cited
f = 5/384 * (ql ^ 4 / EJ)
q = value of continuous load (KN / m)
l = spread
E = Young's modulus of elasticity w / z from the steel grade, e.g. 20500MPa, as I remember well for St3x
(http://pl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modu%C5%82_Younga)
and just J = the moment of inertia (x, y) which is responsible for the arrow w depending on the x and y axis and depending on the profile (aha and types of I-sections there are several min. IP IPN IPE HEA HEB) so each has completely different moments of inertia.
To count correctly, you still need to convert units to cm, we enter the Young's modulus in MPA
so for this I-beam. what you gave is probably IP
http://www.pkm.edu.pl/index.php/ksztatźniki/102-08010211 you have calculations:
deflection in the xx axis, i.e. the web vertically
f = 5/384 * (ql ^ 4 / EJ)
Permanent load from IP 160 only with a span of 6.0m
weight of 1 running meter = 15.8 kg / m = 0.158 KN / m
q = 0.158 KN / m = 0.00158 KN / cm
l = 6 m = 600 cm
E = 20500 Mpa
Jx = 935 cm4
fx = 0.139102648 cm = 1.39mm
y-axis deflection, i.e. the web horizontally
q = 0.158 KN / m = 0.00158 KN / cm
l = 6 m = 600 cm
E = 20500 Mpa
Jy = 54.7 cm4
fy = 2.377714362 cm = 23.77 mm
fx / fy = 17.09323583 that is 17x greater deflection in the yy axis than in the xx axis
wx / out = 7.8
now you get it ??
the deflection depends on Jx or Jy
the indicator here has nothing to do
calculations made according to the Polish standard: PN-B-03200: 1990