I'm a hobbyist and my electrical engineering knowledge couldn't fill a thimble, but I'm trying to understand something.
In the wikipedia article for Thevenin's theorem, there's an example calculation based on a circuit in which there are 4 resistors.
There is a notation that reads:"(notice that R1 is not taken into consideration, as above calculations are done in an open-circuit condition between A and B, therefore no current flows through this part, which means there is no current through R1 and therefore no voltage drop along this part)"
There's evidently a huge gap in my understanding because I simply don't understand how these circuits can be considered equivalent if R1 is ignored. As soon as the original circuit is closed, won't R1 have an effect on voltage and therefore behave differently than the Thevenin equivalent pictured?
In the wikipedia article for Thevenin's theorem, there's an example calculation based on a circuit in which there are 4 resistors.
There is a notation that reads:"(notice that R1 is not taken into consideration, as above calculations are done in an open-circuit condition between A and B, therefore no current flows through this part, which means there is no current through R1 and therefore no voltage drop along this part)"
There's evidently a huge gap in my understanding because I simply don't understand how these circuits can be considered equivalent if R1 is ignored. As soon as the original circuit is closed, won't R1 have an effect on voltage and therefore behave differently than the Thevenin equivalent pictured?
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